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Salt Trade (History)
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Mick Harper
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In: London
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There must be a (Lovelock-style) salt cycle: sloshing around in the sea; sometimes deposited as solid ('locked up'); eventually dug up or washed (leached, weathered, etc.) out of the rocks back into circulation again.

This turns out to be the straw that broke the paradigm's back. The orthodox explanation of a salty ocean is that the rivers bring down salt in very dilute solution and then evaporation of the ocean concentrates into its normal thirty-five parts per thousand saltiness. A back-of-the-envelope calculation shows that if this is the case then there is no exit for the salt and the oceans would be solid salt in a few hundred million years when obviously they have only reached thirty-five parts per thousand in several thousand million years.

The usual attempts have been made to explain this away ("Oh well, you see, the salt forms great deposits in some way we haven't managed to decipher yet leaving the oceans relatively fresh...") but basically you have to throw out the whole paradigm to square the salt circle. Which as many of you know has already been done via one of the Treasure Hunts.
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Komorikid


In: Gold Coast, Australia
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On current scientific methods if all the salt in the world's oceans was extracted and spread evenly over the world's land masses (where the majority of this salt is supposed to come from) it would form a layer over 500 feet thick. The average height of all landmasses above sea level is 2500 feet. This would mean that around 20% of landmasses were composed of salt. Something I find extremely hard to believe.

This is even more suspicious when one considers that the original 'salt leaching out of rock by the hydrological cycle' hypothesis was developed by Edmond Halley in the 18th century, whose principle evidence was that of the small number of lakes in the world without ocean outlets, such as the Dead Sea and the Caspian Sea, most have high salt content. Halley termed this process "continental weathering".

Halley never considered that these lakes could once have been remnants of salt seas that later became landlocked.
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Mick Harper
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Yes, these "minor seas" (I'd include the Baltic which is nearly fresh -- only two parts per thousand) are clearly the key to understanding overall brine theory. What about trying to imagine the Dead Sea drying up (which I believe it is doing) then overlaying a hundred million years of geological time...what would we end up with?
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Komorikid


In: Gold Coast, Australia
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We don't have to imagine. A perfect example exists in Australia. The lower reaches of the Murray River. The surrounding lowlands overlay a former saltpan, which extends as far west as the Lake Eyre Basin. Over time sediments have covered much of the pan on both sides of the river. Gum trees, which are extremely tolerant to adverse climatic conditions, grew in abundance over this entire lowland area and provided a microenvironment for other flora to flourish.

In time the depth of soil and the deep root structure of gums kept the underlying salt in 'stasis' but when Europeans arrived they bulldozed the lowland gums to create field for grazing and agriculture. Without the deep-rooted trees the water table slowly rose and now the entire area is a barren salinated wasteland.
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Mick Harper
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Oh yeah, just a late addendum. You remember Saxa Salt? Well presumably that's etymologically related to Saxons i.e. Saxons = salt-traders. That would explain why Saxons are held to come from either the North German shore (evaporative salt) and/or several hundred miles away in Saxony (where there are lots of salt-mines). It would also explain why Anglo-Saxon is unknown anywhere (and why the Jutes and Angles chose to write it) - it is because it is a trading/writing language just like Latin and Greek.
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DPCrisp


In: Bedfordshire
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I didn't realise Saxony is so far south. I've seen the invasion plans with Jutes, Angles and Saxons setting off for England and assumed Saxony was up there! (BTW, Saltenburg is in or near Saxony.)

Maybe it was a lebensraum thing for the inland Saxons, who allied themselves with the sea-faring Angles? I was just sent this reference:

http://www.findarticles.com/cf_0/m0293/462_115/62980101/print.html

for 'Why did the Anglo-Saxons not become more British?', which says:

The Anglo-Saxon Chronicle ended its account of Athelstan's great victory at Brunanburh over an army of Scots, Britons and Norsemen in these words:
Never yet in this island before this, by what books and our ancient sages tell us, was a greater slaughter of a host made by the edge of the sword, since the Angles and Saxons came hither from the east, invading Britain over the broad sea, and these proud assailants, warriors eager for glory, overcame the Britons and won a country
.

Gee, those guys were pent-up! Sure sounds like an elite ruling class taking over an area with a ready-made identity. If they had to claw every yard from the Welsh, at what point would they be able to say "we overcame and won a country"? No sign of English-as-distinct-from-Welsh here though.

If Angles and Saxons had some sense of unity - and they were no doubt related - what happened to everyone in between Anglia(?) and Saxony?

Saxum means rock or stone, which would be apt if they were miners.

Sach (as in Sachsen) means special, but everyone thinks they're special.

Is there any more to be understood about it? Can you give me or point me towards an exposition/-planation to clarify how this works? Surely lots of people will disagree with you about Latin and Greek -- what's the foundation for your view?

By "Anglo-Saxon is unknown anywhere", do you mean no one is known to speak it now -- and, in fact, no one was known to speak it then, only to write it -- or do you mean there is little or no evidence of actual Angles and Saxons?
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Mick Harper
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In: London
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I didn't realise Saxony is so far south. I've seen the invasion plans with Jutes, Angles and Saxons setting off for England and assumed Saxony was up there! (BTW, Saltenburg is in or near Saxony.)

Even Dark Age historians don't "realise" it. They sort of duck the problem by calling the coastal area New Saxony and the inland one Old Saxony (or the other way round, I forget) and then "draw maps" that kind of push each towards the other but the fact is that there is no connection whatever.

This is made even worse when the linguists take over. Now, as you know, "Germanic" is meant to be the great linguistic homeland (it certainly is of most of the original linguists who laid down the rules) so naturally you get lots of languages "made up" ready to be spoken by any significant Germanic group. The one exception is of course Saxony which (glory be!) really does have a language but since this also has to serve as the coastal Anglo-Saxons' language, Saxony gets given er...something else.

Maybe it was a lebensraum thing for the inland Saxons, who allied themselves with the sea-faring Angles?

Nice try (i.e. don't mention it to orthodoxy or they'll adopt it) but the idea of a tribe who have never seen the sea wandering off to ask for help from complete foreigners to invade a country they've never heard of is....well, it's so bad it probably will be adopted by orthodoxy. (But see below where it turns out you were right after all!)


Oddly enough, the bloke actually says at the beginning of his article

The Germanic invaders absorbed very little of the native culture of Britain; and, by an act of supreme arrogance, they even termed the Britons `wealas', or `foreigners', in their own island

I think he means "by an act of weird stupidity". There are dozens (it was the subject of a long earnest debate on one of the discussion boards) of times in the A/S Chronicle (and other sources) when the British and the Welsh are either specifically distinguished or where it is obvious that they must refer to two different peoples. Needless to say, this was not accepted as evidence. Things are "contemporaneous documentary sources" when they support a paradigm, "obscure" when they don't.

If Angles and Saxons had some sense of unity - and they were no doubt related - what happened to everyone in between Anglia(?) and Saxony? Saxum means rock or stone, which would be apt if they were miners. Sach (as in Sachsen) means special, but everyone thinks they're special.

Can you check on this? What is the German for rock-salt and/or underground salt-brines. It does occur to me that coastal salt is a tough prospect in relatively cold climes so I suppose a connection could be made between Saxon rock-salt (or underground brine, which certainly does exist there and is the foundation of the modern chemical industry in Chemnitz etc) in Saxony being taken up ( i.e. down) the Elbe to the Angles on the coast. To buttress this, remember that the Baltic is virtually salt-free so maybe that's why the Angles of the "angle" were in a good position to exploit this too. And that would make Anglo-Saxon their joint lingua-franca.

Is there any more to be understood about it? Can you give me or point me towards an exposition/-planation to clarify how this works? Surely lots of people will disagree with you about Latin and Greek -- what's the foundation for your view?

As you know, I regard all the "classical languages" (Latin, Greek, Punic, Hebrew, Sanskrit, even maybe Mandarin and Arabic) as being in some sense "esoteric" i.e. as being vehicles for elites (and as conspiracies against everyone else) so it may be that all knowledge before the Scientifc Revolution was "Gnostic". But I have to confess that this is all too much for me and I'll sit back and read your unfolding account instead

Maybe all early written languages were trading languages. It makes sense since writing things down is really very helpful in trade.
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DPCrisp


In: Bedfordshire
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Best I could find was

salt = salz

rock-salt = felsen-salz [= rock-salt]

brine = salzlösung [= salt solution]

Not very interesting or helpful, but it didn't take long to turn up this sort of thing on the internet:

"Salt-making occurred from Saxon times until the 14th century all up the lower Adur Valley [Sussex]"
"A large number of Anglo Saxon charters relate to Droitwich referred to as "Saltwich". The presence of salt making furnaces near the River Salwarpe are confirmed in charters dated 716 and 717."

"Domesday also records those manors which owned coastal salt-making sites (salinae or salterns) along the coast between Lincolnshire and Cornwall. Quoted estimates of the number of such manors are between about 300 and 1195 but, whatever the number, it was considerable. The main concentrations were in the Lincolnshire-East Anglian fenlands and along the South coast."
"There have been extensive finds of Iron Age briquetage in the Lincolnshire and East Anglia Fenlands and along the Essex coastline." i.e. the A-S didn't bring salt-working... maybe that's what they came for?
"13?? 60 saxon miners came to Wieliczka and built new salt mines."

So who were the people who lived between Anglia and Saxony?
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DPCrisp


In: Bedfordshire
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There was a programme Landscape Mysteries about alum mining on the coast near Whitby. Enormous mining/chemical industry at various sites around the coast. All very reminiscent of mining, purifying and trading in salt. Guess what? Even nearby Saltwich got a mention! [ Everywhere on that bit of coast is called This-wich or That-wich.]

(Alum was the (universal?) mordant that made the colours bright and fast; all of it imported until price/availability demanded a local source. The shale was burned for NINE MONTHS. The mind boggles... at the process and at the discovery of the process.)

They went looking for alum-bearing shales all around the coasts in the 17th century, leaving a trail of "Alum" place names where they were UNsuccessful, so they said. I don't get that.

At a basic level, we don't need salt or dyes or blah blah. But since everything that is human about us operates at a 'higher' level, we actually NEED salt, trade, colours, scents, flowers, trinkets... maybe above all, STATUS. So all this stuff was to kill for.
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DPCrisp


In: Bedfordshire
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Another Time Team programme was about Iron Age metal-working and shale-working at Poole Harbour, on the south coast.

The only alum place name I could find was Alum Bay on the Isle of Wight [ cf. Jutes! ], where The Needles trail away from the shore; but there is no alum shale there to speak of.

On the alum programme above, the former extent of the coast line was indicated by a string of rocks poking out of the waves: it had all been mined away (and shifted by sea).

I propose that Alum Bay had all its alum shale mined away in antiquity; and that the enormous physical- and time-scale of the alum-rendering process was revived rather than invented in the 17th century. It must have taken alchemists many years of playing around to work out that you needed to burn the shale for 9 months...

The name alum seems to have no known origin. Is it connected with alchemy?
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Mick Harper
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Yes, telly is becoming the regular source pour nos jours. Last night I discovered that contrary to the orthodox (so I was taught anyway) explanation that the Ancient Brits painted themselves with woad on their bare skin to frighten their enemies ("Bluddy 'ell, Marcus, they can't even afford clothes -- this should be a cake-walk"), the reason is quite other.

Woad, as a food dye, is ingested slowly into the body through the skin, and since the woad has been carefully impregnated with psilocybin (magic mushroom extract) it means that the individual soldier remains in a "berserker" frame of mind all day. Another example of how much cleverer the aborginals were than historians give credit for. Though not nearly as clever as the Romans. ("Ah, they're still using the old psilocybin trick -- this should be a cakewalk.")
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Komorikid


In: Gold Coast, Australia
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The Chinese used various alums anciently for making hides supple and making drinking water potable. They also use it for mordants in the dyeing process with certain types of vegetable dyes. It was also used medicinally as a coagulant to stop bleeding, a deodorant and as a preservative in the pickling of vegetables and fruits.

Its value to the ancient and medieval Chinese was extremely high as it was a vital ingredient in producing their valuable silks and other cloths. Pepper, salt and cloves were the only natural products that rated a higher value.
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Mick Harper
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But have you found out how they made the wretched stuff? We've established that the Brits did it by burning rock alum for six months, a process that is not only incredibly burdensome in its own right but appears to be practically impossible to 'invent'. Now the Chinese have a pretty sophisticated alchemical tradition of their own, plus there's the Silk Road, plus there's these Tocharians with their colourful kilts halfway between. Surely we can put the whole story together, and to bed.
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Mick Harper
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It turns out we were spot-on about the Saxon Shore! I wonder if some academic Young Turks haven't started burrowing into this website. Anyway some bright and breezy young thing turns up with Frances Pryor in his Britain AD programme, standing beside a Roman Fort on the Norfolk coast opining:

"Yes, well, everybody's always thought that the Litus Saxonicum, the Saxon Shore, got its name because it was to protect Roman Britain from marauding Saxon pirates. But this is a misreading of a sixteenth century translation, and there's no archaeological evidence that this was what these things were for [taps wall of fort]."

Anyway it turns out (according to this bloke but it's a bit vague) that they were built by or for the Saxons to store all their gear i.e. to keep marauding Romano-Brits out. This makes complete sense from the Roman point of view because they had no ocean-going expertise of their own so were presumably very happy to give the trading rights with the barbarians to the Saxons. And, by the by, this is exactly the way the more successful Chinese administrations handled their local steppe barbarians--if you gave them privileged trading rights on the northern border, they made damn sure other barbarians didn't queer the pitch by invading.

What we reckoned originally was that the Saxon Shore is where the Saxons operated i.e. where the saltmakers converted seawater into salt. But clearly you wouldn't need a fort to store salt so it looks, on this reading, that our wider theory that The Saxons were general purpose North Sea traders is nearer the mark.

Actually this "fort" business is exactly how the various East India companies operated. They would build forts which were part secure store houses and part commercial depots at various places along a coastline that was mostly friendly but occasionally hostile.

It also explains the Saxon takeover when the Romans left. Since the Romans destroyed the entire British political structure during their four hundred years of occupation, it follows that when they went the only organised polity left would be the Saxon trading networks centred on their east coast forts. So, just like the British in India when the Mughal Empire declined, they started to link up the forts, pushed inland and gradually (in more or less exactly the same time-frame) took over the entire country.
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DPCrisp


In: Bedfordshire
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So what became of the Saxons in France, along their Saxon Shore? What's their connection with the Normans?

[ The Romans ] had no ocean-going expertise of their own

I found it interesting that Julius Caesar commissioned an invasion fleet on the Viking model, but I suppose it could just as well have been Saxon, but what about British ocean-going expertise? Why weren't the trade corridors controlled from here?

Apart from the foreign policy angle, using one lot of barbarians to keep the others in check, I think this might again illustrate the difference between the English and the Celts. The Irish were renowned sailors, but they were busy with Iberia and, presumably, tin. Evidence shows that fish was dropped from the English (British?) diet a long time ago (4000 BC, BP, something like that). I reckon the English had become farmers with (essentially) no ocean-going expertise of their own.

It also explains the Saxon takeover when the Romans left.

Which also explains why the appearance of the Saxons is lost in myth. Speaking of which:

i) In the TV prog Britain AD they were pretty dismissive of the early writers (Gildas, Bede) because they were working to their political agendas and deified the royal lineage; without realising that royal houses always claim descent from the gods and real, invading Anglo-Saxons would continue to make the same claims after coming here.

ii) I wonder whether the Saxons first came as the Beaker People and introduced horses to Britain. (Need to know more on this.) (Someone on Ma'at said "Hengest" and "Horsa" do not comply with normal German naming conventions, but they must mean the normal conventions of the 5th century.)

iii) Is there a connection between Hengest and Stonehenge.
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